Math 309B/C Winter 2012, Homework 4
Due February 8
- Recall that we had two different ways of solving non
homogeneous equations of the form \[x'(t)=Ax(t)+g(t).\] The
first way involved diagonalizing the matrix. Recall that, if $A$
has eigenvalues $\lambda_{1},...,\lambda_{n}$ with eigenvectors
$v_{1},...,v_{n}$, then if we let $T=(v_{1}|\cdots |v_{n})$, we
have that \[TAT^{-1}= D= \left(\begin{array}{cccc} \lambda_{1}
\\ & \lambda_{2} \\ & & \ddots \\ & & &
\lambda_{n}\end{array}\right).\] Let $x=Ty$ for some other
function $y$. We substitute this into our main equation and then
solve for $y$: \[(Ty)'=A(Ty)+g\] \[Ty'=ATy+g.\] Now multiply
both sides by $T^{-1}$, and we get \[T^{-1}T
y'=\underbrace{T^{-1}AT}_{D}y+T^{-1}g\] \[y'=Dy+h\] where we
have set $h=T^{-1} g$ to ease notation. Now we have a new
differential equation, but it's easier to solve since we can
solve a bunch of different equations separately, since this
equation reads off as \[\left(\begin{array}{c} y_{1}' \\ \vdots
\\ y_{n}' \end{array}\right) = \left(\begin{array} \lambda_{1}
y_{1}+h_{1} \\ \vdots \\ \lambda_{n} y_{n}
+h_{n}\end{array}\right)\] where $h_{1},...,h_{n}$ are the
components of the vector $h$ (which are all functions of $t$.
Hence we have $n$ independent equations
\[y_{1}(t)'=\lambda_{1}y_{1}(t)+h_{1}(t)\]
\[y_{2}(t)'=\lambda_{2}y_{2}(t)+h_{2}(t)\] \[\vdots\]
\[y_{n}(t)'=\lambda_{n}y_{n}(t)+h_{n}(t).\] Now we solve each
one of these equations separately using integration factors (see
section 2.1 of the textbook). To review, suppose we're solving
the $j$th equation. We write \[y_{j}'-\lambda_{j}y_{j}=h_{j}\]
and multiply both sides by some integration factor (which we
will solve for in a sec) \[\mu y_{j}'-\mu \lambda_{j} y_{j}=\mu
h_{j}.\] Now, we'd like to pick $\mu$ so that the left side is
just $(\mu y_{j})'$, but $(\mu y_{j})'=\mu y_{j}'+\mu'y_{j}$,
hence this and the left side of the above equation are equal if
\[\mu'=-\lambda_{j} \mu,\] i.e. if
\[\mu(t)=e^{-\lambda_{j}(t)}.\] Hence, going back to the earlier
equation, we have \[(\mu y_{j})'=(e^{-\lambda_{j}t}y_{j})'=\mu
h_{j}= e^{-\lambda_{j}t}h_{j},\] and integrating both sides and
multiplying by $e^{\lambda_{j}} t$ gives
\[y_{j}=e^{\lambda_{j}t}\int e^{-\lambda_{j} t}h_{j}.\] Finally,
our particular solution $x$ is $Ty$.
To find the general solution, we take our particular solution
and add the general solution for the homogeneous equation
$x'=Ax$, so if $x'=Ax$ has fundamental solutions
$x^{(1)},...,x^{(n)}$, then the general solution for $x'=Ax+g$
is \[x=\underbrace{c_{1} x^{(1)}+\cdots +
c_{n}x^{(n)}}_{\mbox{homogeneous
solution}}+\underbrace{Ty}_{\mbox{\particular solution}}.\] Note
that there is no constant in front of the particular solution.
Thus, there are a few steps to solving a nonhomogeneous problem
if $A$ is diagonalizable:
- Find the eigenvectors $v_{1},...,v_{n}$ and eigenvalues
$\lambda_{1},...,\lambda_{n}$
- Let $T=(v_{1}|\cdots | v_{n})$, find its inverse, and
define a new function $h=T^{-1}g$.
- Compute the functions $y_{j}=e^{\lambda_{j}t}\int
e^{-\lambda_{j} t}h_{j}$.
- Finally, compute $Ty$ and add the general solution of
$x'=Ax$ to $Ty$ to get the general solution for the whole
equation.
- So let's do an example, and try to work along. Consider the
equation \[x'=\underbrace{\left(\begin{array}{cc} 1 & 2 \\ 2
& 1
\end{array}\right)}_{A}x+\underbrace{\left(\begin{array}{c}
e^{2t}+e^{-t} \\ e^{2t}-e^{-t}\end{array}\right)}_{g}.\]
- To save some time (since we can do this by now), the
eigenvalues are $3$ and $-1$ with eigenvectors
$\left(\begin{array}{c} 1 \\ 1 \end{array}\right)$ and
$\left(\begin{array}{c} 1 \\ -1 \end{array}\right)$
respectively. Hence the matrix
- $T=\left(\begin{array}{cc} 1 & 1 \\ 1 & -1
\end{array}\right) $ and $T^{-1}=\frac{1}{2}
\left(\begin{array}{cc} 1 & 1 \\ 1 & -1
\end{array}\right) $. Also,
\[h=T^{-1}g=\left(\begin{array}{c} e^{2t} \\
e^{-t}\end{array}\right).\]
- Now we compute the $y$'s. Note that the order of the
eigenvectors in $T$ and the order of the eigenvalues you use
below matter: since our first vector in $T$ has
corresponding eignvalue $3$, that is the eigenvalue we use
below: \[y_{1} =e^{3t}\int e^{-3t}h_{1}=e^{3t}\int
e^{-3t}e^{2t}=e^{3t}\int e^{-t} = -e^{3t}e^{-t}=-e^{2t}.\]
Now we use the second eigenvalue for the second equation
(since the corresponding eigenvector was the second column
of $T$): \[y_{2} = e^{-t}\int e^{t} h_{2} = e^{-t} \int
e^{t} e^{-t}=e^{-t}\int 1 = e^{-t}t.\]
- Thus, \[x=Ty=\left(\begin{array}{cc} 1 & 1 \\ 1 &
-1 \end{array}\right) \left(\begin{array} -e^{2t} \\ e^{-t}
t \end{array}\right) =\left(\begin{array}{cc} -e^{2t}
+te^{-t} \\ -e^{2t} - te^{-t}\end{array}\right).\] For the
general solution to $x'=Ax$, we already know the
eigenvectors and values, so this has fundamental solutions
\[x^{(1)}=\left(\begin{array}{c} 1 \\ 1 \end{array}\right)
e^{3t}, \;\;\; x^{(2)}=\left(\begin{array}{c} 1 \\ -1
\end{array}\right)e^{-t}\] so finally, the general solution
is \[x(t)= c_{1} \left(\begin{array}{c} 1 \\ 1
\end{array}\right) e^{3t}+c_{2} \left(\begin{array}{c} 1 \\
-1 \end{array}\right)e^{-t}+\left(\begin{array}{c} -e^{2t}
+te^{-t} \\ -e^{2t} - te^{-t}\end{array}\right).\]
- Now try some on your own
- $x'=\left(\begin{array}{cc} 1 & 1 \\ 4 & 1
\end{array}\right)x + \left(\begin{array}{c} 2 \\ -1
\end{array}\right) e^{t}$.
- $x'=\left(\begin{array}{cc} 1 & 1 \\ 4 & -2
\end{array}\right)x + \left(\begin{array}{c} e^{-2t} \\
-2e^{t} \end{array}\right) e^{t}$.
- $x'=\left(\begin{array}{cc} 2 & -1 \\ 3 & -2
\end{array}\right)x + \left(\begin{array}{c} 1 \\ -1
\end{array}\right) e^{-t}$.
- Show that if $f$ and $g$ are two $L$ periodic functions, then
$f+g$ is also $L$ periodic.
- Show that if $f$ and $g$ are $L$-periodic and $f(x)=g(x)$ for
$x\in [0,L]$, then $f(x)=g(x)$ for $x\in [0,2L]$. ( Hint:
Let $x\in [L,2L]$. Then $x=L+y$ for some $y\in [0,L$.) What this
exercise tells us is that, if two functions $f$ and $g$ are $L$
periodic and agree on an interval of length $L$, then they
actually equal each other everywhere, since we can show
that they agree in larger and larger intervals (e.g. since they
agree in $[0,L]$, they agree in $[0,2L]$; similarly, we can use
the same reasoning to show they agree in $[-L,2L]$, then
$[-2L,2L]$, etc, just keep on expanding the interval.)
- Suppose we are given a $2L$-periodic function $f$, and we
want to find a potential Fourier series that converges to it
everywhere (the issue of whether or not a Fourier series
converges to its given function is something we'll take up in
section 10.2, but for now, we'll suppose that Fourier series
always converge). To figure out it's Fourier series, we just
need to find a $2L$-periodic Fourier series that agrees with it
on the interval $[-L,L]$ (since if they agree here, then by the
previous exercises, since they are both $2L$-periodic, they will
end up equaling each other everywhere). Hence, we need to
compute its Fourier coefficients $a_{m}$ and $b_{m}$ so that
\[f(x)=\frac{a_{0}}{2} +\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\left(a_{n}\cos
\frac{n\pi x}{L} + b_{n}\sin\frac{n\pi x}{L}\right).\] To do so,
let $\langle f,g\rangle= \int_{-L}^{L}fg$. We simply compute
\[a_{0}=\frac{\int_{-L}^{L}f}{L},\] \[a_{n}=\frac{\langle
f,\cos\frac{n\pi x}{L}\rangle}{L}\] \[b_{n}=\frac{\langle
f,\sin\frac{n\pi x}{L}\rangle}{L}.\]
The following exercises will help you save some time computing
Fourier coefficients. Basically, there are some special cases when
you can see that some Fourier coefficients will be zero without
computing anything.
- We say $f$ is an even function if $f(-x)=f(x)$, and
an odd function if $f(-x)=-f(x)$. For example, $\cos
x$ is an even function and $\sin x$ is an odd function. Even
functions are such that their graphs are symmetric about the
$y$-axis, while odd function are antisymmetric in the sense that
their graph to the left of the $y$-axis is looks like you
reflected the graph across the $y$-axis.
- Show that if $f$ is odd and $g$ is even, then $fg$ is
odd.
- Show that if $f$ is odd, then $\int_{-L}^{L}f=0$.
Hint: Separate this into two integrals, one over
$[-L,0]$ and $[0,L]$ and recall the formula
$\int_{0}^{L}g(-x)dx=\int_{-L}^{0} g(x)$.
- Show that if $f$ is even, then
$\int_{-L}^{L}f=2\int_{0}^{L}f$ (<b> Note:</b>
This is a new problem, I won't quiz you on it, but this is a
very useful fact when evaluating Fourier coefficients that
you should use.)
- Show that if $f$ is an even function that is
$2L$-periodic, then $b_m=0$ for all $m$. Hint: This
follows from the two previous problems.
- Show that if $f$ is an odd function that is
$2L$-periodic, then $a_{m}=0$ for all $m$.
- Compute the Fourier coefficients for the following functions
and write down their Fourier series. (Also, remember to check if
the functions are odd or even and use the above exercises so you
don't have to do so many computations!):
- $f(x)=1-|x|$ on $[-1,1]$, $f(x+2)=f(x)$ everywhere else.
Answer: Since $f$ is 2-periodic, $L=1$ (recall that
this guarantees that the trigonometric functions in our
Fourier series will also be $2L$-periodic. Note that $f(x)$
is an even function, since $f(-x)=1-|-x|=1-|x|=f(x)$. Hence,
by a previous exercise, $b_{m}=0$. Using 7c,
\[a_{0}=\frac{\int_{-L}^{L}
f(x)}{L}=\int_{-1}^{1}f(x)=2\int_{0}^{1}f(x)=2\int_{0}^{1}(1-|x|)=2\int_{0}^{1}(1-x)=x-\frac{x^{2}}{2}|_{0}^{1}=\frac{1}{2}\]
and
again
using 7c, \[a_{m}=\frac{\int_{-1}^{1}f(x)\cos m\pi
x}{1}=2\int_{0}^{1}f(x)\cos m\pi x=2\int_{0}^{1}(1-x)\cos
m\pi x = \frac{2}{m\pi}(1-x)\sin m\pi x|_{0}^{1}
-\frac{2}{m\pi}\int_{0}^{1}(-1)\sin m\pi x =
0-\frac{2}{m^{2}\pi^{2}}\cos m\pi x|_{0}^{1}
=-\frac{2}{m^{2}\pi^{2}}(\cos m \pi -1)\] and hence the
Fourier series is \[f(x)= \frac{1/2}{2}
+\sum_{m=1}^{\infty}\left(-\frac{2}{m^{2}\pi^{2}}(\cos m \pi
-1)\cos m\pi x+0\sin m\pi
x\right)=\frac{1}{4}-\frac{2}{\pi^{2}}\sum_{m=1}^{\infty}\frac{\cos
m\pi -1}{m^{2}}\cos m\pi x.\] If we write out the first so
many terms of this series, we get
\[f(x)=\frac{1}{4}+\frac{4}{\pi^{2}}\cos \pi x +
\frac{4}{3^{2}\pi^{2}}\cos 3\pi x+\frac{4}{5^{2}\pi^{2}}\cos
5\pi x+\cdots.\] Notice that the pattern is that every other
term is zero, and only the odd numbered terms (i.e. the
terms with $\cos m\pi x$ where $m$ is odd) appear. We can
rewrite this in the simplified form
\[f(x)=\frac{1}{4}+\frac{4}{\pi^{2}}\sum_{m=1}^{\infty}\frac{\cos
(2m-1)x}{2m-1}.\]
- $f(x)=x^{2}$ on $[-\pi,\pi]$, $f(x+2\pi)=f(x)$ everywhere
else. By evaluating $f$ and your Fourier series at zero,
find an infinite sum that equals $\pi^{2}$. Answer:
Note that $f$ is $2\pi$-periodic, so $L=\pi$. Also note that
this is even, so $b_{m}=0$. Then, using 7c,
\[a_{0}=\frac{\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}f(x)}{\pi}=\frac{2}{\pi}\int_{0}^{\pi}f(x)=\frac{2}{\pi}\int_{0}^{\pi}
x^{2}=\frac{2}{\pi}
\frac{x^{3}}{3}|_{0}^{\pi}=\frac{2}{\pi}
\frac{\pi^{3}}{3}=\frac{2\pi^{2}}{3}.\]
\[a_{m}=\frac{\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}f(x)\cos
mx}{\pi}
=\frac{2}{\pi}\int_{0}^{\pi}x^{2}\cos m x
=\frac{2}{m\pi}x^{2}\sin
mx|_{0}^{\pi}-\frac{2}{m\pi}\int_{0}^{\pi} 2x\sin mx
=0-\frac{2}{m^{2}\pi}2x \cos
mx|_{0}^{\pi}+\frac{2}{m^{2}\pi}\int_{0}^{\pi}2\cos mx
=\frac{2}{m^{2}\pi}2\pi\cos m\pi+\frac{4}{m^{3}\pi}\sin
mx|_{0}^{1}=\frac{4}{m^{2}}\cos m\pi.\] And hence the
Fourier series is
\[f(x)=\frac{\frac{2\pi^{2}}{3}}{2}+\sum_{m=1}^{\infty}
\frac{4}{m^{2}}\cos m\pi \cos mx.\] Note that $\cos
m\pi=(-1)^{m}$, so this series can be written in simplified
form as
\[f(x)=\frac{\pi^{2}}{3}+\sum_{m=1}^{\infty}\frac{4}{m^{2}}(-1)^{m}\cos
mx.\] Since $f(x)=x^{2}$, if we plug in zero, we get
\[0=\frac{\pi^{2}}{3}+\sum_{m=1}^{\infty}\frac{4}{m^{2}}(-1)^{m},\]
and hence
\[\frac{\pi^{2}}{12}=\sum_{m=1}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^{m+1}}{m^{2}}.\]
- $f(x)= \cosh x$ in $[-\pi,\pi]$ and $f(x+2\pi)=f(x)$
everywhere else.
- $f(x)=\sinh x$ in $[-\pi,\pi]$, $f(x+2\pi)=f(x)$
everywhere else.
- $f(x)=x(x^{2}-1)$ for $x\in[-1,1]$ and $f(x+2)=f(x)$
everywhere else.
Answer: Note that $f$ is odd, since
$f(-x)=-x(x^{2}-1)=-f(x)$, so $a_{0}=a_{m}=0$. Also note that
since $f$ and $\sin m\pi x$ are odd, their product is even, so
by 7c, \begin{align*} b_{m} & =\int_{-1}^{1}f(x)\sin m\pi
x=2\int_{0}^{1}x(x^{2}-1)\sin m\pi x\\ &
=-2\frac{1}{m\pi}x(x^{2}-1)\cos m\pi
x|_{0}^{1}+2\frac{1}{m\pi}\int_{0}^{1}(3x^{2}-1)\cos m\pi x\\
& =0+\frac{2}{m^{2}\pi^{2}}(3x^{2}-1)\sin m\pi
x|_{0}^{1}-\frac{2}{m^{2}\pi^{2}}\int_{0}^{1}6x \sin m\pi x \\
& =0+\frac{2}{m^{3}\pi^{3}}6x\cos m
\pi|_{0}^{1}-\frac{2}{m^{3}\pi^{3}}\int_{0}^{1}6\cos m\pi x\\
& =\frac{12\cos m\pi
}{m^{3}\pi^{3}}-\frac{12}{m^{4}\pi^{4}}\sin m\pi
x|_{0}^{1}=\frac{12\cos m\pi }{m^{3}\pi^{3}} \end{align*} and
so the Fourier series is \[f(x)=\sum_{m=1}^{\infty}
\frac{12\cos m\pi }{m^{3}\pi^{3}}\sin m\pi x,\] and recalling
that $\cos m\pi=(-1)^{m}$, we may simplify this by writing
\[f(x)=\sum_{m=1}^{\infty}\frac{12(-1)^{m}}{m^{3}\pi^{3}}\sin
m\pi x.\]
- $f(x)=\left\{ \begin{array}{cc} x+2 & -2\leq x\leq -1
\\ -x & -1\leq x\leq 1 \\ x-2 & 1\leq x\leq 2
\end{array}\right.$, $f(x+4)=f(x)$. yo